Title: Psychological Research
Course: Question bank check

Q: A(n) ________ is a general, tentative explanation that proposes explanations for observed behavior that can be used to predict future outcomes whereas a(n) ________ is a specific prediction about the relationship between two or more variables that is to be tested.
- hypothesis; theory (Incorrect. A theory is a more general statement that predicts or tentatively explains different outcomes of relationships between variables whereas a hypothesis is a more specific prediction of the relationship between two or more variables that can be tested.)
- prediction; experiment (Incorrect. A theory is a more general statement that predicts or tentatively explains different outcomes of relationships between variables whereas a hypothesis is a more specific prediction of the relationship between two or more variables that can be tested.)
- outcome; theory (Incorrect. A theory is a more general statement that predicts or tentatively explains different outcomes of relationships between variables whereas a hypothesis is a more specific prediction of the relationship between two or more variables that can be tested.)
- theory; hypothesis (Correct! A theory is a more general statement that predicts or tentatively explains different outcomes of relationships between variables whereas a hypothesis is a more specific prediction of the relationship between two or more variables that can be tested.)
A: theory; hypothesis

Q: Dr. Diaz is a researcher who thinks that compared to traditional learning in a classroom setting, virtual learning will cause anxiety in young children. What steps should Dr. Diaz follow to conduct a study consistent with the scientific method?
- make an observation, do an experiment, analyze the results, make a hypothesis, prove or disprove hypothesis, ask a question (Incorrect. Check the order of steps to make sure they make sense sequentially.)
- ask a question, create a hypothesis, prove or disprove the hypothesis, conduct an experiment, analyze the results (Incorrect. Check the order of steps to make sure they make sense sequentially.)
- conduct an experiment, form a hypothesis, prove or disprove the hypothesis, analyze the results, ask a question (Incorrect. Check the order of steps to make sure they make sense sequentially.)
- make an observation, ask a question, form a hypothesis, do an experiment, analyze the results, prove or disprove the hypothesis (Correct! These steps, properly applied, have the greatest chance of determining whether Dr. Diaz is correct or not.)
A: make an observation, ask a question, form a hypothesis, do an experiment, analyze the results, prove or disprove the hypothesis

Q: Dr. Helen Mayberg conducted a study and found that deep-brain stimulation showed multi-year effectiveness in treating severely depressed, treatment-resistant patients. In order for her study to be considered verifiable
- it should make predictions about future events. (Incorrect. While this characteristic is desirable in a study, it does not affect the study’s verifiability. How would someone else verify that the study’s published results are correct?)
- it should be capable of being disproved. (Incorrect. While this characteristic is desirable in a study, it does not affect the study’s verifiability. How would someone else verify that the study’s published results are correct?)
- it should not have any mistakes in the procedure. (Incorrect. While this characteristic is desirable in a study, it does not affect the study’s verifiability. How would someone else verify that someone else followed correct procedures?)
- it must be replicable by another researcher. (Correct! Verifiability equals reproducibility.)
A: it must be replicable by another researcher.

Q: In the context of descriptive research methods in psychology, ________ are performed by clinical psychologists for the purpose of having an up-close, in-depth, and detailed examination of an individual’s course of treatment.
- correlational studies (Incorrect. Descriptive research is distinct from correlational research, in which psychologists formally test whether a relationship exists between two or more variables.)
- naturalistic observations (Incorrect. The major downside of naturalistic observations is that they are often difficult to set up and control. Although something as simple as observation may seem like it would be a part of all research methods, participant observation is a distinct methodology that involves the researcher embedding themselves into a group in order to study its dynamics.)
- surveys (Incorrect. Surveys are lists of questions to be answered by research participants and can be delivered as paper-and-pencil questionnaires, administered electronically, or conducted verbally. They allow researchers to gather data from larger samples than may be afforded by other research methods.)
- case studies (Correct! Today, case studies more commonly reflect an up-close, in-depth, and detailed examination of an individual’s course of treatment. Case studies typically include a complete history of the subject’s background and response to treatment. From the particular client’s experience in therapy, the therapist’s goal is to provide information that may help other therapists who treat similar clients. Through fine-grained knowledge and description, case studies can fully specify the causal mechanisms in a way that may be harder in a large study.)
A: case studies

Q: Research studies that do not test specific relationships between variables are called
- correlational studies. (Incorrect. Correlational studies do test specific relationships between variables.)
- experimental research. (Incorrect. Experimental studies not only test relationships between variables, but also manipulate one of the factors in order to determine whether one of the variables has a causal effect on the other.)
- meta-analysis studies. (Incorrect. Meta-analysis is a useful method of research that combines the results from many different studies into one; this kind of study does test the relationships between variables.)
- descriptive studies. (Correct! Descriptive studies describe a situation or phenomenon and are a very important type of preliminary research.)
A: descriptive studies.

Q: Which of the following psychological research methods is likely to be most effective for the purpose of determining possible increase of drug/alcohol use in a large population during the coronavirus pandemic?
- case study (Incorrect. In a one-on-one relationship, individuals may misreport behaviors that are in contrast to prevalent social norms or regulations.)
- experiment (Incorrect. The experimental method involves manipulating one variable to determine if changes in one variable cause changes in another variable. This method relies on controlled methods, random assignment, and the manipulation of variables to test a hypothesis. This method would be unethical here.)
- observational study (Incorrect. We would need to observe the behavior in its natural context. It is critical that the observer be as unobtrusive and as inconspicuous as possible: when people know they are being watched, they are less likely to behave naturally.)
- computerized survey (Correct! Surveys are lists of questions to be answered by research participants, and can be delivered as paper-and-pencil questionnaires, administered electronically, or conducted verbally. Computerized surveys may lead to significantly more reporting of socially undesirable behaviors. Generally, the survey itself can be completed in a short time, and the ease of administering a survey makes it easy to collect data from a large number of people.)
A: computerized survey

Q: ________ involves following a group of research participants for an extended period of time.
- Archival research (Incorrect. Archival research is pulling data from existing documents—or archives—to answer a new research question.)
- Naturalistic observation (Incorrect! Naturalistic observation involves observing the behavior of interest at the location and time in which it naturally occurs.)
- Cross-sectional research (Incorrect. In many ways, cross-sectional research is the opposite of the research described in this question: it collects data on many people of different ages or stages of development all at the same time. It’s like the cross-section of a tree trunk—you can see all the different time frames at once.)
- Longitudinal research (Correct! It’s right there in the name: longitudinal research is long. It follows its participants to track long-term outcomes.)
A: Longitudinal research

Q: Longitudinal research is complicated by high rates of
- naturalistic observation. (Incorrect. Naturalistic observation generally does not include any interaction between the researcher and the participants, making it unlikely to cause complications.)
- deception. (Given the ethical implications of having to deceive participants over long periods of time, longitudinal research is actually less likely to involve deception than other types of research.)
- generalization. (Problems with generalization come from having a non-representative sample, which is no more likely in longitudinal research than in most other types of studies.)
- attrition. (Correct! Attrition is the gradual drop-out of participants over time. The longer the study, the more likely it is that attrition will be a problem.)
A: attrition.

Q: Research that compares multiple segments of the population at the same time is known as
- longitudinal research. (Incorrect. Longitudinal research follows the same individuals over a period of time, and so by definition, your data points will not be from the same time.)
- archival research. (Incorrect. Archival research aggregates data from existing historical documents, and so by definition, most of your data points will not be at the same time.)
- comparative research. (Incorrect. Comparative research is such a broad term as to be functionally useless; it is not a term that is covered in the text.)
- cross-sectional research. (Correct! Cross-sectional research compares different segments of a population (e.g., different age groups) at the same time.)
A: cross-sectional research.

Q: Depression is strongly related to both suicidal ideation and attempt, but it lacks specificity as a predictor,r and little is known about the characteristics that increase the risk of suicide among people with depression. As part of the Australian Rural Mental Health Study, the relationship between depression and suicidal behavior was investigated. The findings of the research state that in 2018, out of 1,051 participants, 364 reported lifetime depression. Of these, 48% reported lifetime suicidal ideation and there were 58 cases of suicide attempts in 2018 due to life-time depression. This reflects the ________ of suicide attempts due to life-time depression in rural Australia during 2018.
- concordance rate (Incorrect. Formally, the concordance rate is the percent of cases in which both members of a pair have a particular attribute. In a study of the relative influence of genes and environment on a mental illness, for example, the attribute is the particular mental illness, and the pairs studied are usually twins.)
- probability (Incorrect. The probability of an event is a measure of the likelihood that the event will occur.)
- prevalence (Incorrect. Prevalence is distinct from incidence, which is a measure of the number of new cases. Prevalence involves all affected individuals, regardless of the date of contraction; incidence is a measure of the number of new cases of a characteristic that develop in a population in a specified time period. To illustrate, a disease with a long duration that was spread widely in a community in 2002 will have a high prevalence in 2003 (assuming it has a long duration), but it might have a low incidence rate in 2003.)
- incidence (Correct! Incidence is a measure of the number of new cases of a characteristic that develop in a population during a specified time period; prevalence is the proportion of a population who have a specific characteristic in a given time period, regardless of when they first developed the characteristic. To illustrate, a disease with a long duration that was spread widely in a community in 2002 will have a high prevalence in 2003 (assuming it has a long duration), but it might have a low incidence rate in 2003.)
A: incidence

Q: A group of researchers studying the effects of alcohol use on academic achievement in high school asked respondents whether they drank alcohol during the past month. In this instance, the investigators were collecting ________ data.
- incidence (Incorrect. Incidence is a measure of the number of new cases of a characteristic that develop in a population in a specified time period whereas prevalence is the proportion of a population who have a specific characteristic in a given time period, regardless of when they first developed the characteristic.)
- concordance rate (Incorrect. Formally, the concordance rate is the percent of cases in which both members of a pair have a particular attribute. In a study of the relative influence of genes and environment on a mental illness, for example, the attribute is the particular mental illness and the pairs studied are usually twins.)
- ordinal (Incorrect. Ordinal data is a kind of categorical data with a set order or scale to it. For example, ordinal data is said to have been collected when a responder inputs his/her financial happiness level on a scale of 1–10.)
- prevalence (Correct! In epidemiology, the prevalence of a disease or disorder in a population is defined as the total number of cases of the disease in the population at a given time. In this case, prevalence is the proportion of a population who have a specific characteristic (alcohol consumption) in a given time period (the past month), regardless of when they first developed the characteristic.)
A: prevalence

Q: The frequency of new cases of a disorder within a given time period is referred to as
- concordance rate. (Incorrect. Formally, the concordance rate is the percent of cases in which both members of a pair have a particular attribute.)
- probability. (Incorrect. The probability of an event is a measure of the likelihood that the event will occur.)
- prevalence. (Incorrect. Prevalence is distinct from incidence, which is a measure of the number of new cases.)
- incidence. (Correct! Incidence refers to the number of new cases occurring during a specific period of time.)
A: incidence.

Q: A correlation coefficient can indicate
- whether one variable causes an effect on another variable. (Incorrect. A correlation coefficient does not indicate whether one variable causes an effect on another variable; only an experimental research design can determine causation. A correlation coefficient indicates the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables.)
- a positive relationship, but not a negative relationship between variables. (Incorrect. A correlation coefficient can indicate either a positive or a negative relationship between variables. It indicates the strength as well as the direction of the relationship between two variables.)
- a negative relationship, but not a positive relationship between variables. (Incorrect. A correlation coefficient can indicate either a positive or a negative relationship between variables. It indicates the strength as well as the direction of the relationship between two variables.)
- the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables. (Correct! A correlation coefficient is a statistical measure that indicates the strength and direction (either positive or negative) of a linear relationship between a predictor variable and an outcome variable.)
A: the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables.

Q: A negative correlation means that
- a third variable eliminates a correlational relationship. (Incorrect. You have just described an illusory correlation.)
- two variables decrease together. (Incorrect. Though it seems counterintuitive, this is a positive correlation. After all, if two variables decrease together, then they must also increase together.)
- two variables increase together, but they are associated with an undesirable outcome. (Incorrect. The positive and negative terms used in regards to correlation refer only to its mathematical sign, not the desirability of any particular outcome.)
- one variable decreases as the other increases. (Correct! In a negative correlation, one variable’s value decreases as the other increases.)
A: one variable decreases as the other increases.

Q: The findings of an experiment conducted by a group of researchers prove that with the increase in the consumption of alcohol, the vulnerability of developing mental disorders increases. This is an example a(n) ________ correlation.
- illusory (Incorrect. An illusory correlation occurs when two variables appear to be correlated, but not in any meaningful way.)
- negative. (Incorrect. An illusory correlation occurs when two variables appear to be correlated but not in any meaningful way.)
- confounding. (Incorrect. A confounding variable is a third variable in a study examining a potential cause-and-effect relationship.)
- positive (Correct! A positive correlation means that the variables move in the same direction. Put another way, it means that as one variable increases so does the other, and conversely, when one variable decreases so does the other.)
A: positive

Q: In a well-designed experimental study, the ________ variable is the only important difference between the experimental and control groups and we expect that the ________ variable will change as a function of that variable.
- dependent; independent (Incorrect. An independent variable is manipulated or controlled by the experimenter. In a well-designed experimental study, the independent variable is the only important difference between the experimental and control groups. We expect that the dependent variable will change as a function of the independent variable.)
- quantitative; categorical (Incorrect. A quantitative variable is a quantity, such as height, that is typically measured by assigning a number to each individual. Other examples of quantitative variables include people’s level of talkativeness, how depressed they are, and the number of siblings they have. A categorical variable is a quality, such as chosen major, and is typically measured by assigning a category label to each individual (e.g., psychology, English, nursing, etc.). Other examples include people’s nationality, their occupation, and whether they are receiving psychotherapy.)
- confounding; third (Incorrect. Just as the phrase “to be confounded” means that you are taken aback or surprised by an unexpected outcome, a confounding variable in science is a variable that you did not expect or account for. This is sometimes referred to as the “third variable problem” (e.g., two variables, X and Y, can be statistically related not because X causes Y, or because Y causes X, but because some third variable, Z, causes both X and Y).)
- independent; dependent (Correct! An independent variable is manipulated or controlled by the experimenter. A dependent variable is what the researcher measures to see how much effect the independent variable had. We expect that the dependent variable will change as a function of the independent variable.)
A: independent; dependent

Q: Studies that investigate differences among groups from a target population without random assignment are known as
- double-blind trials. (Incorrect. In a double-blind study, both the researchers and the participants are blind to group assignments because by doing so, they can control for both experimenter and participant expectations.)
- single-blind studies. (Incorrect. The use of a single-blind study means that one of the groups (participants) is unaware as to which group they are in (experiment or control group) while the researcher who developed the experiment knows which participants are in each group.)
- correlational designs. (Incorrect. In correlational research, scientists passively observe and measure phenomena. Here, we do not intervene and change behavior, as we do in experiments.)
- quasi-experimental. (Correct! That is to say, this type of study specifically lacks the element of random assignment to treatment or control groups. Assignment to a given treatment condition is based on something other than random assignment. Depending on the type of quasi-experimental design, the researcher might have control over the assignment to the treatment condition but uses some criteria other than random assignment (e.g., gender or a cutoff score on a depression scale) to determine which participants receive the treatment.)
A: quasi-experimental.

Q: In ________, participants receive a treatment that is very similar to but not the same as the actual experimental treatment.
- a quasi-experimental condition (Incorrect. A study that investigates differences among groups from a target population without random assignment is known as quasi-experimental.)
- a single-blind condition (Incorrect. The use of a single-blind study means that one of the groups (participants) is unaware as to which group they are in (experiment or control group) while the researcher who developed the experiment knows which participants are in each group.)
- a correlational study (Incorrect. In correlational research, scientists passively observe and measure phenomena. Here, we do not intervene and change behavior, as we do in experiments.)
- a placebo condition (Correct! When it comes to abnormal psychology, it is common practice to have a placebo condition in studies evaluating therapy effectiveness. If the study is evaluating effectiveness of therapy, psychologists must design the placebo in a way that is very similar to, but not the same as the actual therapy. Ideally, we would want the placebo participants to receive treatments in the same modality, or form in which the clinician offers psychotherapy, as the experimental group participants, including frequency and duration.)
A: a placebo condition

Q: If an experiment can be easily replicated by another researcher and provide similar results, it is considered
- valid. (Incorrect. Validity is the determination that the experiment actually tests what it says it did.)
- duplicable. (Incorrect. This is not a correct vocabulary term for the definition above.)
- falsifiable. (Incorrect. Falsifiability is the ability to prove a hypothesis wrong.)
- reliable. (Correct! Reliability is the likelihood of getting the same results across different testing scenarios.)
A: reliable.

Q: If an experiment measures what it is supposed to measure, it is considered
- reliable. (incorrect. Reliability is the likelihood of getting the same results across different testing scenarios.)
- predictable. (Incorrect. Predictability means that it can accurately predict future behaviors.)
- falsifiable. (Incorrect. Falsifiability is the ability to prove a hypothesis wrong.)
- valid. (Correct! Validity is the determination that the experiment actually tests what it says it did.)
A: valid.

Q: An intelligence test yields the same results when administered on three separate occasions. However, the test’s results are more strongly correlated with hours spent doing homework than they are with other standardized intelligence tests. This test has ________ reliability and ________ validity.
- high; high (Incorrect. Though the test has high reliability (similar scores across multiple testings), it does not have high validity (it does not provide similar outcomes to established IQ tests; i.e., it does not accurately test what it says it does).)
- low; high (Incorrect. Though the test has high reliability (similar scores across multiple testings), it does not have high validity (it does not provide similar outcomes to established IQ tests; i.e., it does not accurately test what it says it does).)
- low; low (Incorrect. Though the test has high reliability (similar scores across multiple testings), it does not have high validity (it does not provide similar outcomes to established IQ tests; i.e., it does not accurately test what it says it does).)
- high; low (Correct! Though the test has high reliability (similar scores across multiple testings), it does not have high validity (it does not provide similar outcomes to established IQ tests; i.e., it does not accurately test what it says it does).)
A: high; low

Q: What best describes the purpose of the IRB?
- to ensure that every research proposal has a clear and falsifiable hypothesis (Incorrect. The Institutional Review Board ensures proper, ethical treatment of participants and can prevent unethical or unsafe proposals from being enacted.)
- to review operational definitions in experiments (Incorrect. The Institutional Review Board ensures proper, ethical treatment of participants and can prevent unethical or unsafe proposals from being enacted.)
- to ensure that new research meaningfully adds to the scientific literature (Incorrect. The Institutional Review Board ensures proper, ethical treatment of participants and can prevent unethical or unsafe proposals from being enacted.)
- to review proposals for research that involves human participants (Correct! The Institutional Review Board ensures proper, ethical treatment of participants and can prevent unethical or unsafe proposals from being enacted.)
A: to review proposals for research that involves human participants

Q: Anthony, a young man with an anxiety disorder, volunteers to participate in a psychological study so that he can earn $200. The researchers have informed him that he will be required to reflect upon his adolescence, but they do not explain this experiment is unsuitable for individuals with anxiety. During the experiment, Anthony feels quite a bit of anxiety and asks to withdraw. In this case, the ethics guideline that has most likely been violated is
- debriefing. (Incorrect. In cases where deception is involved, participants must receive a full debriefing upon conclusion of the study—complete, honest information about the purpose of the experiment, how the data collected will be used, the reasons why deception was necessary, and information about how to obtain additional information about the study.)
- confidentiality. (Incorrect. This step is included as part of informed consent.)
- ethics. (Incorrect. The researcher’s sense of ethics should be involved at every step of the research process, but generally, this is not put onto a form for the participant to peruse.)
- informed consent. (Correct! An informed consent form provides a written description of what participants can expect during the experiment, including potential risks and implications of the research.)
A: informed consent.

Q: Which organization reviews research conducted using animal subjects?
- Institutional Review Board (IRB) (Incorrect. Review the text on research practices—which group is in charge of human subjects research and which for animal research?)
- Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW) (Incorrect. However, the NIH Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW) has been directed by law to develop policies that describe the role of Institutional Animal Care and Use Committees.)
- United States National Institutes of Health (NIH) (Incorrect. However, most research involving laboratory animals is funded by the United States National Institutes of Health or, to lesser extents, other federal agencies.)
- Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) (Correct! An Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee governs the approval of research using animals at any research institution.)
A: Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)

Q: Dr. Daniels is a practicing marriage counselor. She went through a messy divorce last year and has been experiencing mood disturbances since then. She finds it difficult to give clients her full attention. Her personal feelings about marriage have begun to influence the way she advises her clients. Which of the following roles and responsibilities from the five ethical principles would be in question in this case?
- Principle B: Fidelity and Responsibility (Incorrect. This principle states that psychologists are bound to the community by way of their profession and must conduct themselves in a responsible and ethical manner while also maintaining a similar check on colleagues.)
- Principle C: Integrity (Incorrect. This principle states that psychologists should not engage in behavior that could be misconstrued as dishonest, exploitative, or otherwise malicious.)
- Principle E: Respect for People's Rights and Dignity (Incorrect. This entails awareness of the vulnerabilities experienced by any particular population of people and necessitates an understanding of and respect for diversity, including, but not limited to, factors concerning gender, race, religion, disability, and socioeconomic status.)
- Principle A: Beneficence and Non-maleficence (Correct! This principle states that psychologists are to maintain awareness of how the psychologist's own physical and mental health may influence their work.)
A: Principle A: Beneficence and Non-maleficence

Q: Dr. Remington does not feel that he has the necessary resources to effectively treat Amoli’s condition. He gives Amoli a referral to another clinician because he lacks which of the following core competencies for psychology?
- cultural competence (Incorrect. Cultural competence is the ability to understand, communicate with, and effectively interact with people across cultures. In this case, Dr. Remington does not possess the necessary resources and skills to treat Amoli’s condition.)
- responsibility (Incorrect. This comes from the APA general principles. The fidelity and responsibility principle inspires psychologists to cultivate a professional and scientific environment built upon trust, accountability, and ethical considerations.)
- beneficence (Incorrect. This comes from the APA general principles. The beneficence and non-maleficence principle guides psychologists to perform work that is beneficial to others yet does not hurt anyone in the process of carrying out that work.)
- necessary knowledge and skill (Correct! Competencies specify what psychologists need to do and the behaviors they should undertake to perform their professional responsibilities effectively. Competencies are often combinations of the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform a given role, and Dr. Remington does not possess the necessary resources and skills to treat Amoli’s condition.)
A: necessary knowledge and skill

Q: Which statement is true about the APA's Ethical Principles?
- There are five general principles that serve as enforceable rules. (Incorrect. General Principles, as opposed to Ethical Standards, are aspirational in nature.)
- Failure to follow the five general principles can result in sanctions. (Incorrect. Failure to follow the APA Ethics code can result in sanctions, but the five general principles represent ethical goals and do not explicitly instruct adherence to the goals. Their intent is to guide and inspire psychologists toward the very highest ethical ideals of the profession.)
- There are five general principles that have a legal backing. (Incorrect. General Principles, in contrast to Ethical Standards, do not represent legal obligations and do not form the basis for imposing sanctions. Their intent is to guide and inspire psychologists toward the very highest ethical ideals of the profession.)
- The general principles represent ethical goals, but do not explicitly inform or instruct adherence to the goals. (Correct! There are five general principles that serve as the ideals to which psychologists should aspire within the profession. The principles represent ethical goals, but do not explicitly inform or instruct adherence to the goals; instead, the principles aim to influence and to guide professional behavior with respect to the psychologist, research subjects, students, and the individuals who seek psychological services.)
A: The general principles represent ethical goals, but do not explicitly inform or instruct adherence to the goals.

Q: Communicating to the client the potential risks and benefits of the therapy technique and its limits is required so that the client can
- establish rapport with the psychologist. (Incorrect. Rapport in psychology is a warm, relaxed relationship of mutual understanding, acceptance, and sympathetic compatibility between or among individuals.)
- understand the strict confidentiality rule of therapy. (Incorrect. A therapist’s duty is not only to notify the client of their privacy policies, but to also explain in detail any circumstances in which the confidentiality agreement of counseling gets broken.)
- choose the duration of the therapy. (Incorrect. There are guidelines for the course and duration of therapy and the expected length is communicated by the therapist.)
- provide informed consent. (Correct! Psychologists are required to inform clients/patients as early as is feasible in the therapeutic relationship about the limits of confidentiality, the therapy technique and treatment risks, and the client’s rights.)
A: provide informed consent.

Q: Harper is being treated by Dr. Odewale for a mood disorder. When Harper talks about her husband, Steve, Dr. Odewale immediately realizes who Steve is because he is the married man she has been seeing for several months. Why should Dr. Odewale refer Harper to another therapist?
- because she cannot guarantee confidentiality (Incorrect. Psychologists need to maintain appropriate levels of confidentiality. Specific guidelines are provided for maintaining confidentiality for the psychologist's patients as well as discussing the limits of confidentiality with them. In certain situations where the safety of the patient or others is at risk, confidentiality must be broken as law enforcement needs to be notified.)
- to avoid being threatened by the client (Incorrect. Termination of therapy should occur when the clinician is threatened by the client or a person related to the client, but this is not the case here.)
- because Harper would not benefit from therapy (Incorrect. The benefits of therapy for mood disorders have been well established.)
- to avoid multiple relationships (Correct! A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists.)
A: to avoid multiple relationships

Q: Which of the following statements is true with regard to the APA Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Lesbian, Gay and Bisexual Clients?
- Psychologists should oppose same-sex attractions, feelings, and behaviors because they are not normal variants of human sexuality. (Incorrect. Psychologists understand that same-sex attractions, feelings, and behavior are normal variants of human sexuality and that efforts to change sexual orientation have not been shown to be effective or safe.)
- Psychologists should not consider the effects of stigma (i.e., prejudice, discrimination, and violence) and its various contextual manifestations in the lives of lesbian, gay, and bisexual people. (Incorrect. Psychologists strive to understand the effects of stigma (i.e., prejudice, discrimination, and violence) and its various contextual manifestations in the lives of lesbian, gay, and bisexual people.)
- Psychologists should make efforts to change sexual orientation because lesbian, gay, and bisexual orientations are mental illnesses. (Incorrect. Psychologists understand that lesbian, gay, and bisexual orientations are not mental illnesses.)
- Psychologists are encouraged to recognize how their attitudes and knowledge about lesbian, gay, and bisexual issues may be relevant to assessment and treatment and seek consultation or make appropriate referrals when indicated. (Correct! Clients who have multiple oppressed identities might be especially at-risk for experiencing unhelpful situations with counselors, so counselors might need help with gaining expertise for working with clients who are transgender, lesbian, gay, bisexual, and other oppressed populations.)
A: Psychologists are encouraged to recognize how their attitudes and knowledge about lesbian, gay, and bisexual issues may be relevant to assessment and treatment and seek consultation or make appropriate referrals when indicated.

Q: A mental health professional’s responsibility to notify a potential victim of a client’s harmful intent toward that individual is referred to as
- civil commitment. (Incorrect. Involuntary commitment, civil commitment, or involuntary hospitalization is a legal process through which an individual (who is deemed by a qualified agent to have symptoms of severe mental disorder) is detained in a psychiatric hospital (inpatient) where they can be treated involuntarily.)
- the Durham rule. (Incorrect. The Durham rule established that a jury may determine a defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity because the criminal act was the product of a mental disorder.)
- substituted judgment. (Incorrect. Substituted judgment generally is a decision made by a person on behalf of a person who is incompetent and unable to decide for himself or herself. Substituted judgment with regard to guardianship is the standard that directs the decision making of a guardian.)
- duty to warn or protect. (Correct! Tarasoff vs. Regents of the University of California, (Cal. 1976), was a case in which the Supreme Court of California held that mental health professionals have a duty to warn or protect individuals who are being threatened with bodily harm by a patient.)
A: duty to warn or protect.

Q: Evelyn has severe suicidal ideation. Despite the fact that she does not want to be hospitalized, her doctor may begin ________ proceedings if Carol is deemed to be a danger to herself.
- irresistible impulse defense (Incorrect. The irresistible impulse defense is where the defendant argues that they should not be held criminally liable for their actions that broke the law because they could not control those actions, even if they knew them to be wrong.)
- insanity defense (Incorrect. The insanity defense is an affirmative defense by excuse in a criminal case, arguing that the defendant is not responsible for his or her actions due to an episodic or persistent psychiatric disorder at the time of the criminal act.)
- competency (Incorrect. The word competent is used when there is a question as to who should not undergo or partake in certain judicial processes.)
- involuntary commitment (Correct! Involuntary commitment is applied to individuals believed to be experiencing a mental illness that impairs their ability to reason to such an extent that the agents of the law, state, or courts determine that decisions will be made for the individual under a legal framework. This is a proceeding distinct from being found incompetent and limits involuntary treatment to individuals who meet statutory criteria for presenting a danger to self or others.)
A: involuntary commitment

Q: When a lawyer argues that the defendant is not responsible for his or her actions due to an episodic or persistent psychiatric disorder at the time of the criminal act, he/she is using a(n)
- irresistible impulse defense. (Incorrect. Legislators added the irresistible impulse defense, in which the defendant argues that they should not be held criminally liable for their actions that broke the law because they could not control those actions, even if they knew them to be wrong.)
- substituted judgment defense. (Incorrect. Substituted judgment generally is a decision made by one person on behalf of another person who is incompetent and unable to decide for himself or herself. Substituted judgment with regard to guardianship is the standard that directs the decision-making of a guardian.)
- parens patriae defense. (Incorrect. Parens patriae is most commonly applied to cases regarding the custody and care of minor children and disabled adults. It is a legal term that refers to the government's power to act as the legal guardian for people who are unable to care for themselves. Parens patriae is most commonly applied to cases regarding the custody and care of minor children and disabled adults.)
- insanity defense. (Correct! The insanity defense is an affirmative defense by excuse in a criminal case, arguing that the defendant is not responsible for his or her actions due to an episodic or persistent psychiatric disorder at the time of the criminal act. Legal definitions of insanity or mental disorder are varied, and include the M’Naghten Rule, the Durham rule, the ALI rule (American Legal Institute Model Penal Code rule), and other provisions, often relating to a lack of mens rea (“guilty mind”).)
A: insanity defense.