Title: Prenatal Development
Course: Question Banks

Q: What is the primary focus of evolutionary psychology?
- The universal patterns of behavior and cognitive processes that stay the same over time (Incorrect. Evolutionary psychology does not study patterns of behavior and cognitive processes that stay the same over time.)
- The universal patterns of behavior and cognitive processes that are similar between humans and animals (Incorrect. Evolutionary psychology does not study behaviors and cognitive processes that are similar between humans and animals. This would actually be comparative psychology.)
- The universal patterns of behavior and cognitive processes that are different between humans and animals (Evolutionary psychology does not study behaviors and cognitive processes that are different between humans and animals. This would actually be comparative psychology.)
- The ways in which universal patterns of behavior and cognitive processes have evolved over time (Correct! Evolutionary psychology focuses on the evolution of behaviors and cognitions over time to facilitate survival. These can include fear response, preferences for certain foods, selection of partners, and engagement in cooperative behaviors.)
A: The ways in which universal patterns of behavior and cognitive processes have evolved over time

Q: Scott is talking to his friends about what he has learned in his psychology class. They want to hear more about the theory of evolution by natural selection. What should Scott tell them is the main idea of the theory of evolution by natural selection?
- Organisms that are poorly suited for their environments will change throughout their lives to become better suited. (Incorrect. This theory does not suggest that poorly suited organisms will change. Instead, it suggests that when organisms are best suited for their environment, they are more likely to survive, and this gives them a greater likelihood of passing their genes along.)
- Organisms that are poorly suited for their environments will change during their early years to be better suited. (Incorrect. This theory does not include any change occuring during a limited period of development. Instead, it focuses on change that occurs gradually, over an extended time period.)
- Organisms that are best suited for their environment will wipe out those that are not suited. (Incorrect. This theory does not involve this type of competition between organisms, and it does not equate being suited for an environment with displaying aggression to those who are not suited.)
- Organisms that are best suited for their environments will prevail in survival and reproduction. (Correct! According to this theory, this type of survival is the way in which organisms that are best suited for a certain environment gradually become prevalent in that environment. Being suited for the environment increases their ability to survive and the likelihood that they will reproduce.)
A: Organisms that are best suited for their environments will prevail in survival and reproduction.

Q: According to the theory of evolution by natural selection, which of the following statements would be true?
- Mothers form a bond with their babies because of the norms and rules established by society. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection suggests that adaptive traits will prevail within a species due to their ability to facilitate survival. This theory does not include social norms and rules.)
- Mothers form a bond with their babies because it is usually a law in most locations. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection suggests that adaptive traits will prevail within a species due to their ability to facilitate survival. This theory does not, however, include laws or legal matters.)
- Mothers form a bond with their babies because not doing so would cause them to be rejected by others. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection suggests that adaptive traits will prevail within a species due to their ability to facilitate survival. This theory does not, however include anything about social rejection.)
- Mothers form a bond with their babies because doing so facilitates successful development. (Correct! The theory of evolution by natural selection suggests that adaptive traits will prevail within a species, and the application of this theory to lifespan development implies that adaptive behaviors that facilitate successful development will prevail.)
A: Mothers form a bond with their babies because doing so facilitates successful development.

Q: How would the theory of evolution by natural selection explain the well-developed ability of human beings to seek socialization and to socialize effectively?
- It is an ability that individuals learn solely from their family. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection refers to the development and prevalence of survival-promoting characteristics over time. It does not involve learned behaviors from one's family during childhood.)
- It is an ability that individuals are taught in school, beginning during adolescence. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection refers to the development and prevalence of survival-promoting characteristics over time. It does not involve behaviors that are taught in school during a specific developmental stage.)
- It is an ability that has developed over time because it promotes competition. (Incorrect. The theory of evolution by natural selection refers to the development and prevalence of survival-promoting characteristics over time. It does not involve the promotion of competition within a species.)
- It is an ability that has developed over time because it promotes survival. (Correct! The theory of evolution by natural selection suggests that survival-promoting characteristics develop over time due to a greater likelihood of those genes being passed along. Extending this theory to behaviors, it would suggest that survival-promoting behaviors would also prevail over time.)
A: It is an ability that has developed over time because it promotes survival.

Q: What is the primary function of gametes?
- They are the new cells that are formed during fertilization. (Incorrect. A zygote is the new cell that is formed when the sperm and egg join during fertilization.)
- They are the part of the cell cell that contains the genetic information. (Incorrect. A chromosome is the part of the cell that contains the genetic information from each parent.)
- They are the structure that an egg travels through from the ovary to the uterus. (Incorrect. A fallopian tube is where the egg travels from the ovary into the uterus.)
- They are the sex cells involved in reproduction. (Correct! Gametes are the sex cells involved in reproduction. Male gametes are called sperm, and female gametes are called ova.)
A: They are the sex cells involved in reproduction.

Q: How do the chromosomes contained in a gamete differ from the chromosomes contained in other normal human cells?
- Gametes have 46 chromosomes, while other normal human cells have 23. (Incorrect. This is not how gametes differ from normal human cells. Normal human cells contain 46 chromosomes.)
- Gametes have one chromosome, while other normal human cells have two. (Incorrect. Both gametes and other normal human cells have more chromosomes than one or two.)
- Gametes have 23 chromosomes, while other normal human cells have none. (Incorrect. Other normal human cells have chromosomes.)
- Gametes have 23 chromosomes, while other normal human cells have 46. (Correct! Gametes have half the number of chromosomes compared to other normal human cells, since segments of the chromosomes from each parent form pairs.)
A: Gametes have 23 chromosomes, while other normal human cells have 46.

Q: What is the defining feature of chromosomes?
- They combine during fertilization to form a zygote. (Incorrect. This is not a defining feature of chromosomes. The sperm and the egg combine during fertilization to form a zygote.)
- They are released from the ovary every 28 days. (Incorrect. This is not a defining feature of chromosomes. The ova are released from the ovary every 28 days, one at a time.)
- They always produce monozygotic twins. (Incorrect. Monozygotic twins are produced when a single zygote splits apart in the first two weeks of development.)
- They contain genetic information from each parent. (Correct! Chromosomes contain genetic information from each parent. They have half the number of chromosomes as other normal human cells because they form pairs with those of the other parent.)
A: They contain genetic information from each parent.

Q: What is the difference between a sperm and an egg?
- The sperm is the female gamete, while the egg is the male gamete. (Incorrect. This is not the difference between a sperm and an egg. Sperm are not the female gamete, and eggs are not the male gamete.)
- The sperm causes monozygotic twins, while the egg causes dizygotic twins. (Incorrect. This is not the difference between a sperm and an egg. Neither cause either type of twin on their own. Twins are created by abnormal functions during fertilization.)
- The sperm contains only Y chromosomes, while the egg contains both X and Y chromosomes. (Incorrect. This is not the difference between a sperm and an egg. Sperm can contain either an X or Y chromosome, while an egg can only contain X chromosomes.)
- The sperm is the male gamete, while the egg is the female gamete. (Correct! This is the difference between a sperm and an egg. Sperm are produced in the testes, and eggs are produced in the ovaries.)
A: The sperm is the male gamete, while the egg is the female gamete.

Q: Normal human cells have ________ chromosomes while gametes have ________ chromosomes.
- 23; 23 (Incorrect. Make sure that you consider if the question is referring to pairs of chromosomes or single chromosomes.)
- 46; 46 (Incorrect. Make sure that you consider if the question is referring to pairs of chromosomes or single chromosomes.)
- 23; 46 (Incorrect. Make sure that you consider if the question is referring to pairs of chromosomes or single chromosomes.)
- 46; 23 (Correct! All human cells have 46 chromosomes or 23 pairs. The exception is gametes which have 23 chromosomes. When an ova combines with a sperm they will combine each of their 23 chromosomes.)
A: 46; 23

Q: Which of the following describes an allele?
- long strings of genetic material known as DNA (Incorrect. Remember, long strips of genetic material known as DNA are actually called chromosomes.)
- sequences of DNA (Incorrect. Remember, sequences of DNA are actually called genes.)
- inherited physical characteristics (Incorrect. Remember, inherited physical characteristics are actually called phenotype.)
- a specific version of a gene (Correct! Single genes have multiple possible variations, which are referred to as alleles.)
A: a specific version of a gene

Q: What are genes comprised of?
- alleles (Incorrect. Alleles are actually specific versions of single genes.)
- phenotypes (Incorrect. A phenotype actually refers to inherited physical characteristics.)
- genotypes (Incorrect. A genotype actually refers to an individual's genetic makeup.)
- sequences of DNA (Correct! The egg and sperm each contain 23 chromosomes, which are long strips of genetic material called DNA. In each chromosome, sequences of DNA make up the genes that control visible characteristics like eye color and hair color.)
A: sequences of DNA

Q: What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
- Genotype refers to inherited physical characteristics, while phenotype refers to genetic makeup. (Incorrect. It looks like you got these mixed up. Remember, genotype actually refers to the genetic makeup of an individual.)
- Genotype is a specific version of a gene, while phenotype is a long strip of genetic material. (Incorrect. Remember, a specific version of a gene is actually an allele, and a long strip of genetic material is actually a chromosome.)
- Genotype is a long strip of genetic material, while phenotype is a specific version of a gene. (Incorrect. Remember, a long strip of genetic material is actually a chromosome, while a specific version of a gene is actually an allele.)
- Genotype refers to genetic makeup, while phenotype refers to inherited physical characteristics. (Correct! Genotype refers to genetic makeup, as it comes from the genetic material supplied by both parents. In contrast, phenotype refers to physical characteristics that the individual inherits through the parents' genes.)
A: Genotype refers to genetic makeup, while phenotype refers to inherited physical characteristics.

Q: Brayson’s son was diagnosed with having a chromosomal abnormality. If you were Brayson’s friend, how would you explain the cause of chromosomal abnormalities?
- inheriting the wrong type of chromosomes (Incorrect. It is not possible for the wrong type of chromosomes to be inherited.)
- two eggs being fertilized by two sperm (Incorrect. Two eggs being fertilized by two sperm causes dizygotic twins, not chromosomal abnormalities.)
- a zygote that fails to separate completely (Incorrect. A zygote that fails to separate completely causes conjoined twins, not chromosomal abnormalities.)
- inheriting too many or too few chromosomes (Correct! Chromosomal abnormalities occur when a child inherits the wrong number of chromosomes, either too many or too few.)
A: inheriting too many or too few chromosomes

Q: What happens with gametes to create chromosomal abnormalities?
- The gametes divide evenly when they are forming. (Incorrect. Even gamete division is normal and does not cause chromosomal abnormalities.)
- The gametes do not divide when they are forming. (Incorrect. Gametes have to divide when they are forming.)
- The gametes divide too many times when they are forming. (Incorrect. The amount of division is not relevant to chromosomal abnormalities.)
- The gametes do not divide evenly when they are forming. (Correct! The incorrect number of chromosomes that cause abnormalities are created when the gametes fail to divide evenly when they are forming.)
A: The gametes do not divide evenly when they are forming.

Q: What causes the most common chromosomal abnormality, called Trisomy 21?
- A missing chromosome on #21 (Incorrect. Trisomy 21 is not associated with a missing chromosome.)
- An extra X chromosome only on #21 (Incorrect. Trisomy 21 is not only caused by an extra X chromosome.)
- An extra Y chromosome only on #21 (Incorrect. Trisomy 21 is not only caused by an extra Y chromosome.)
- An extra chromosome on #21 (Correct! Trisomy 21 occurs when there are three chromosomes on #21 instead of two. This can causes symptoms related to Down Syndrome.)
A: An extra chromosome on #21

Q: What is the main goal of prenatal screening?
- To determine if the baby is going to be male or female at birth. (Incorrect. Although the option is often given for parents to be informed of the gender of their baby before birth, this is not the main goal of prenatal screening.)
- To detect health conditions that are not identified before birth. (Incorrect. Remember, prenatal testing occurs during the early stages of prenatal development, being done before the baby is born.)
- To pursue additional information after a problem has been found. (Incorrect. Testing that seeks additional information following the identification of a possible problem is actually called prenatal diagnosis and is targeted to specific factors.)
- To detect problems with the health of the zygote, embryo, or fetus. (Correct! Prenatal screening seeks to determine if the developing baby is healthy, and to identify any possible problems early on so that the best course of action can be chosen ahead of time.)
A: To detect problems with the health of the zygote, embryo, or fetus.

Q: Zaria and Kalvin recently received the results of the prenatal screening conducted for their unborn baby. They were provided with a risk score. What does a risk score tell expecting parents about their baby?
- the type of birth defect that the baby could have (Incorrect. A risk score is calculated based on prenatal screening only, and does not reveal any information about specific types of birth defects.)
- the probability of the baby having down syndrome (Incorrect. A risk score is not restricted to down syndrome only.)
- the probability of the baby having autism (Incorrect. A risk score is not restricted to autism only.)
- the probability of a birth defect being present (Correct! A risk score is calculated based on noninvasive prenatal screening, and can be used as the basis for the decision about whether or not to have further testing.)
A: the probability of a birth defect being present

Q: Why do most women choose to have general prenatal screening before deciding whether or not to have more invasive testing?
- Because prenatal screening such as ultrasounds and blood tests are more accurate than the more invasive tests. (Incorrect. Prenatal screening is general in nature, and does not provide detailed information about specific birth defects possible in the developing baby.)
- Because invasive testing such as ultrasounds and blood tests can increase the risk of miscarriage and fetal damage. (Incorrect. Ultrasounds and blood tests are not considered invasive and do not increase such risk.)
- Because prenatal screening can be done before the baby is born, but the invasive testing can only be done after birth. (Incorrect. Procedures considered more invasive, such as amniocentesis and CVS procedures are always done prior to birth.)
- Because invasive testing such as amniocentesis and CVS procedures can increase the risk of miscarriage and fetal damage. (Correct! Prenatal screening is a noninvasive way to determine if any of the more risky and invasive tests are necessary.)
A: Because invasive testing such as amniocentesis and CVS procedures can increase the risk of miscarriage and fetal damage.

Q: What do behavioral geneticists study?
- individual differences that occur as a result of the environment only (Incorrect. Remember, behavioral genetics is not limited to environmental factors.)
- individual differences that occur as a result of genetics only (Incorrect. Remember, behavioral genetics is not limited to genetic factors)
- individual differences that occur between individuals of the same gender and race (Incorrect. Behavioral genetics does not focus on the comparisons of genders and race.)
- individual differences that occur through the interaction of genes and the environment (Correct! Behavioral geneticists study how the interaction of genetic and environmental factors create differences between individuals.)
A: individual differences that occur through the interaction of genes and the environment

Q: What do adoption studies compare?
- behavioral traits between identical twins and fraternal twins (Incorrect. It looks like you got mixed up. Behavioral traits are compared between twins in twin studies.)
- behavioral traits between non-related individuals in different environments (Incorrect. Although adoption studies may involve non-related individuals, they do not seek to make comparisons between environments.)
- behavioral traits between identical twins only (Incorrect. Remember, adoption studies are not the type of research approach used by behavioral geneticists to make comparisons between either type of twins.)
- behavioral traits between biological relatives and adopted relatives (Correct! Adoption studies are a common approach used in behavioral genetics to gain insight to the role of genes and environment for the expression of a given trait. The comparison of behaviors between related and non-related family members helps to isolate the influence of each factor.)
A: behavioral traits between biological relatives and adopted relatives

Q: What is the underlying claim of gene-environment interaction?
- Genetic makeup definitively determines all possible outcomes that occur in both appearance and behavior. (Incorrect. Gene-environment interaction does not focus on only the genetic influences on physical or behavioral traits.)
- Environmental factors definitively determine all possible outcomes that occur in both appearance and behavior. (Incorrect. Gene-environment interaction does not focus on only the environmental influences on physical or behavioral traits.)
- Environmental factors only influence the expression of genes associated with negative behavior traits (Incorrect. Gene Environment interaction does not focus solely on one type of trait, either positive or negative.)
- Genetic makeup determines a range of possible outcomes that may or may not occur depending on the environment. (Correct! Gene-environment interaction is based on the idea that many traits are polygenic and multifactorial, meaning that they are influenced by a variety of both genetic and non-genetic components.)
A: Genetic makeup determines a range of possible outcomes that may or may not occur depending on the environment.

Q: In the nature/nurture debate, those on the "nature" side would argue:
- That who we are is determined by our environment. (Incorrect. This is a definition of nurture.)
- That who we are is an equal mix of our genetics and our environment. (Incorrect. Although many scholars agree with this, if a person is on the nature side of the debate they would not have this view.)
- That only twins share similar genetic make-up. (Incorrect. While it is true that twins share similar DNA this is not part of the nature debate.)
- That who we are is determined by our genetics. (Correct! Nature refers to how much our genetics or biology affects who we are.)
A: That who we are is determined by our genetics.

Q: Which of the following describes a difference between how monozygotic and dizygotic twins develop?
- Dizygotic twins come from a single zygote, while monozygotic twins come from two zygotes. (Incorrect. Dizygotic twins do not come from a single zygote.)
- Monozygotic twins come from an egg that was fertilized in the fallopian tube, while dizygotic twins come from an egg that was fertilized in the uterus. (Incorrect. The location of the egg when it's fertilized does not influence the development of twins.)
- Monozygotic twins are caused by a double X chromosome, while dizygotic twins are caused by a combination of one X and one Y chromosome (Incorrect. The presence of XX chromosomes or XY chromosomes does not influence the development of twins.)
- Monozygotic twins come from a single zygote, while dizygotic twins come from two zygotes. (Correct! Monozygotic twins comes from one zygote and usually share a placenta, while dizygotic twins come from two separately fertilized eggs.)
A: Monozygotic twins come from a single zygote, while dizygotic twins come from two zygotes.

Q: Which of the following describes the way in which genetic material is distributed between twins?
- Dizygotic twins share 100% of their genetic material. (Incorrect. Dizygotic twins come from two separately fertilized eggs so they do not have the exact same genetic makeup.)
- Monozygotic twins share 70% of their genetic material. (Incorrect. Monozygotic twins do not share 70% of their genetic material.)
- Dizygotic twins do not have any shared genetic material. (Incorrect. Dizygotic twins do share some genetic material.)
- Monozygotic twins share 100% of their genetic material. (Correct! Monozygotic twins come from a single fertilized egg, so they have the exact same genetic make up.)
A: Monozygotic twins share 100% of their genetic material.

Q: Conjoined twins are also which type of twin?
- Dizygotic (Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are formed when two ova are fertilized by two sperm. Conjoined twins could not be formed by this process.)
- Fraternal (Incorrect. Fraternal twins is a common term that is used for dizygotic twins.)
- Zygotic (Incorrect. This is not a type of twin. The correct terms are dizygotic or monozygotic.)
- Monozygotic (Correct! Monozygotic twins are formed when one zygote splits apart in early development. In conjoined twins, there is a portion of that does not completely separate.)
A: Monozygotic

Q: Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between sexes and twin type?
- Monozygotic twins can be different sexes, while dizygotic twins are the same sex. (Incorrect. Dizygotic twins come from two separate eggs fertilized by two separate sperm. This means that they can be different sexes.)
- Both monozygotic and dizygotic twins are the same sex. (Incorrect. Sex similarity and difference are determined by whether one egg is fertilized by one sperm, or two eggs are fertilized by two sperm. This differs between twin types.)
- There is no relationship between gender and twin type. (Incorrect. One type of twin is almost always the same sex, while the other can be the same or different.)
- Monozygotic twins are the same sex, while dizygotic twins can be different sexes. (Correct! Monozygotic twins share the same DNA so they are always the same sex unless a genetic mutation occurs during development.)
A: Monozygotic twins are the same sex, while dizygotic twins can be different sexes.

Q: What event occurs at the end of the germinal period?
- the egg is fertilized by the sperm (Incorrect. The fertilization of the egg by the sperm occurs during conception. The germinal period goes beyond this.)
- the parents' DNA is passed on to the child (Incorrect. This occurs at the moment of conception, when the sperm fertilizes the egg. The germinal period goes beyond this.)
- the zygote divides and multiplies (Incorrect. This occurs during the first week after conception, and continues throughout most of prenatal development. The germinal period ends before cell division stops.)
- the zygote is implanted into the uterus lining (Correct! The germinal period lasts for about two weeks, spanning from conception to the implantation of the fertilized egg, or zygote, into the uterus lining.)
A: the zygote is implanted into the uterus lining

Q: Jacqueline just found out that she is pregnant. She is aware that exposure to harmful substances can damage her baby. During which period of prenatal development is the baby most vulnerable to damage if exposed to harmful substances?
- the germinal period (Incorrect. Although harmful substances are never good for a developing baby to be exposed to, the germinal period occurs before the fertilized egg is implanted into the uterus lining, and vulnerability is not excessively high in comparison to other stages.)
- the fetal period (Incorrect. Although harmful substances are never good for a developing baby to be exposed to, the fetal period occurs after most of the major structures are through their initial development, and vulnerability is not excessively high in comparison to other stages.)
- vulnerability is the same throughout prenatal development (Incorrect. Although harmful substances are never good for a developing baby to be exposed to, vulnerability is higher during one stage of prenatal development than others.)
- the embryonic period (Correct! During the embryonic period the major structures of the baby are developing, which makes it more vulnerable to exposure to harmful substances.)
A: the embryonic period

Q: At which point during prenatal development are the internal organs developed fully enough to allow the baby to survive outside the womb if born prematurely (age of viability)?
- 16 weeks (Incorrect. Although by this point in development the fetus has developed fingers and toes, including visible fingerprints, its major organs such as the lungs, heart, stomach, and intestines are not developed enough to survive outside the womb.)
- 37 weeks (Incorrect. Although the baby is certainly able to survive outside the womb at this point, the age of viability is actually reached sooner.)
- 40 weeks (Incorrect. At 40 weeks, birth becomes imminent. However, the age of viability is actually reached sooner.)
- 24 weeks (Correct! By this point in development the baby's lungs, heart, stomach, and intestines have developed enough to allow it to survive outside the womb. In the event of a premature birth, the baby would be very vulnerable to the environment and survival would not be guaranteed.)
A: 24 weeks

Q: Which of the following is true about the effects of alcohol during prenatal development?
- It can only have negative effects when consumed during the second month of prenatal development (Incorrect. Although some points in prenatal development are associated with greater vulnerability than others, the negative effects of alcohol are not limited to the second month.)
- It can only have negative effects when consumed through patterns of binge drinking. (Incorrect. Although binge drinking does have negative effects on the developing baby, these negative effects are not limited to this type of consumption only.)
- It can lead to problems with the kidneys, bones, and heart, that go away after birth. (Incorrect. Although alcohol consumption can cause these issues, they are not guaranteed to go away after birth. In fact, some get worse, and most last a lifetime.)
- It can lead to a spectrum of symptoms that include both physical and behavioral abnormalities. (Correct! Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can cause what's known as fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, which encompasses a variety of symptoms that vary from individual to individual.)
A: It can lead to a spectrum of symptoms that include both physical and behavioral abnormalities.

Q: Which of the following describes an effect of tobacco to an unborn baby?
- flattened nose (Incorrect. Remember, this physical abnormality is actually a common effect of exposure to alcohol during prenatal development.)
- small eye sockets (Incorrect. Remember, this is a physical abnormality that is often associated with exposure to alcohol during prenatal development and often becomes apparent in children with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.)
- an abnormally small head (Incorrect. Remember, this is a physical abnormality that is usually associated with exposure to alcohol during prenatal development and is often seen in children with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.)
- reduced blood oxygen levels (Correct! When a mother smokes, the developing baby experiences reduced blood oxygen levels. These can subsequently cause a multitude of problems including low birth weight, birth defects, preterm delivery, fetal growth restriction, and sudden infant death syndrome.)
A: reduced blood oxygen levels

Q: Which of the following is true about the effects of heroin use during pregnancy?
- The baby cannot develop an addiction to heroine. (Incorrect. Remember, exposure to a drug like heroine during prenatal development can and often does cause addiction in the baby when it is born.)
- The baby can only develop an addiction if exposed during the first few weeks of prenatal development. (Incorrect. Although some stages of prenatal development are associated with higher levels of vulnerability to teratogens, the risk of addiction for a baby exposed to heroine prenatally is not limited to the first few weeks.)
- The baby can only develop an addiction if exposed during the final few weeks of prenatal development. (Incorrect. Although some stages of prenatal development are associated with higher levels of vulnerability to teratogens, the risk of addiction for a baby exposed to heroine prenatally is not limited to any particular point in prenatal development.)
- The baby could be born with a heroin addiction. (Correct! When a mother uses heroine, or other drugs during pregnancy, and unborn baby can develop an addiction to the drug. When the baby is born it needs heroine just like an adult addict, and needs to be weaned off under medical supervision.)
A: The baby could be born with a heroin addiction.

Q: Which of the following is true about complications that can be experienced during pregnancy?
- Major complications only occur in women who become pregnant later in life, such as after age 35. (Incorrect. Although major complications may be more common in women after a certain age, this does not mean that they don't occur in younger women also.)
- Major complications only occur when pregnant women make poor health decisions during pregnancy. (Incorrect. Although poor health decisions can certainly increase the risk of complications, it is still possible for complications to occur in women who do not make poor health decisions.)
- Major complications are always caused by the pregnant woman's increased susceptibility to infections. (Incorrect. Although an increased susceptibility to infections is present for pregnant women, it is not the sole cause of complications during pregnancy.)
- Major complications often require special care and may include gestational diabetes and hypertension. (Correct! These complications tend to create health risks to both the mother and the baby that are too great to treat with over the counter remedies.)
A: Major complications often require special care and may include gestational diabetes and hypertension.

Q: Which of the following is the most common reason for spontaneous abortions or miscarriages?
- defective eggs (Incorrect. Although problems with the woman's eggs could occur, this is not a common reason for miscarriages. Defective sperm are more likely to lead to miscarriages.)
- gestational diabetes (Incorrect. Although gestational diabetes can create problems during pregnancy and pose a threat to the developing baby, it is usually managed and controlled, and is not a common cause of miscarriages.)
- hypertension (Incorrect. Although hypertension can be a problem during pregnancy and can pose threats to the baby and the mother especially during delivery, it is not a common cause of miscarriages.)
- chromosomal abnormalities (Correct! Miscarriages most commonly occur because of chromosomal abnormalities. Such abnormalities usually suggest that the baby will be unable to develop normally, so it is aborted by the body.)
A: chromosomal abnormalities

Q: What is the difference between anoxia and hypoxia?
- Hypoxia occurs when the infant experiences total lack of oxygen and experiences severe brain damage, while anoxia occurs when the infant is deprived of adequate oxygen and experiences mild brain damage (Incorrect. It looks like you got these mixed up. Although both are caused by some level of oxygen deprivation during birth, remember, hypoxia is less extreme than anoxia.)
- Hypoxia is caused by lack of oxygen to the brain, while anoxia is caused by gestational diabetes (Incorrect. Although gestational diabetes can create problems during pregnancy and birth, it is not the cause of anoxia.)
- Hypoxia is caused by gestational diabetes, while anoxia is caused by lack of oxygen to the brain (Incorrect. Although gestational diabetes can create problems during pregnancy and birth, it is not the cause of hypoxia.)
- Hypoxia occurs when the infant is deprived of adequate oxygen and experiences mild brain damage, while anoxia occurs when the infant experiences total lack of oxygen and experiences severe brain damage (Correct! Hypoxia results in mild brain damage caused by inadequate oxygen, while anoxia results in severe brain damage, produced by total lack of oxygen. Although hypoxia is typically less severe, both can lead to problems such as cerebral palsy.)
A: Hypoxia occurs when the infant is deprived of adequate oxygen and experiences mild brain damage, while anoxia occurs when the infant experiences total lack of oxygen and experiences severe brain damage

Q: Shaylesa is learning about various approaches to childbirth. She is most interested in hypno-birthing and Lamaze. What is a key theme in both hypno-birthing and the Lamaze method?
- nutrition and pain blockers (Incorrect. These methods do not involve nutrition as a primary focus. In addition, they utilize other techniques to avoid or reduce the need for pain medications.)
- relaxation and nutrition (Incorrect. Remember, nutrition is not a primary focus in either of these methods.)
- nutrition and education (Incorrect. Remember, nutrition is not a primary focus in either of these methods.)
- relaxation and breathing (Correct! Both of these methods employ techniques to increase relaxation and regulate the mother's breathing during labor and delivery to reduce tension and pain.)
A: relaxation and breathing

Q: How does a birthing center differ from a hospital?
- It provides a larger variety of pain medications. (Incorrect. Birthing centers are able to provide medical assistance during birth, but they do not have pain medications that hospitals couldn't provide.)
- It provides education about birth. (Incorrect. Although expecting mothers may find information about birth at a birthing center, educating women about birth is not a primary goal or feature.)
- It allows the partner to be present. (Incorrect. Although birthing centers certainly do allow the partner to be present, hospitals also allow this.)
- It provides a more home-like environment. (Correct! Birthing centers strive to provide an environment that feels more like home, with the goal of normalizing the process of birth.)
A: It provides a more home-like environment.

Q: Which of the following pain relief methods is most common during birth?
- water birth (Incorrect. Although a water birth can help reduce some pain during labor and delivery, it is not the most commonly used pain relief method during birth.)
- anesthesia (Incorrect. Since women need to be active participants in the birthing process, anestesia is not typically used during labor and delivery.)
- narcotic pills (Incorrect. Narcotic pain relievers such as Oxycodone are harmful to the baby and are not administered during pregnancy, including during labor and delivery.)
- epidural (Correct! This method is the most common of pain management methods during birth. It is a procedure that involves injecting pain blocking medication into the space just outside the spinal cord during labor and delivery.)
A: epidural

Q: Which stage of labor is typically the longest?
- second stage (Incorrect. The second stage is not the longest. It usually lasts about 10-40 minutes, and involves the passage of the baby through the birth canal.)
- third stage (Incorrect. The third stage is not the longest. It usually takes place about 20 minutes after delivery, and involves the delivery of the placenta or afterbirth.)
- fourth stage (Incorrect. Labor is only divided into three stages, each of which involve different events of the birth.)
- first stage (Correct! The first stage is typically the longest, often lasting 12-16 hours for a first child, and less time for women who have given birth before. During this stage, the cervix dilates to approximately 10 centimeters.)
A: first stage

Q: What happens during stage 2 of a normal delivery?
- The delivery of posterior shoulder and lower body. (Incorrect. The posterior shoulder and lower body are not delivered during stage two. They actually come later in the process.)
- The delivery of lower body and umbilical cord. (Incorrect. The lower body and umbilical cord are not delivered during stage two. They are delivered toward the end of the delivery process.)
- The placenta detaches and exits through the vagina. (Incorrect. Remember, the placenta is actually delivered after the baby delivery is complete.)
- The rotation and delivery of anterior shoulder. (Correct! During the second stage of a normal delivery, the head appears, and this is followed by the rotation and delivery of the anterior shoulder.)
A: The rotation and delivery of anterior shoulder.

Q: Sue just told Teresa that she has reached the end of stage 1. Which event marks the end of stage 1 of a normal delivery?
- The delivery of the placenta (Incorrect. The placenta is actually delivered at the end of the birthing process, not during stage one.)
- The delivery of the umbilical cord (Incorrect. The umbilical order is actually delivered after stage one of the birthing process.)
- The passage of the baby through the birth canal (Incorrect. The baby passes through the birth canal later in the process, after stage one.)
- The dilation of the cervix to 10 cm (Correct! During this initial stage of delivery, the cervix becomes dilated, which allows the delivery of the baby to begin.)
A: The dilation of the cervix to 10 cm

Q: What are low birth weight babies typically unable to do?
- breathe on their own (Incorrect. Although in extreme cases of low birth weight, most likely caused by premature birth, babies may have difficulty breathing, low birth weight on its own is not associated with this.)
- cry or make other sounds (Incorrect. The inability to cry or produce sound is not associated with a low birth weight.)
- hear with both ears (incorrect. The inability to hear with both ears is not associated with a low birth weight.)
- regulate their body temperature (Correct! Babies that have a low birth weight are unable to regulate their own body temperature due to a lack of the fat that would provide insulation.)
A: regulate their body temperature

Q: Which disorder is commonly associated with very low birth weight babies?
- autism (Incorrect. Although autism has been attributed to a number of different possible factors, it is not associated with low birth weight.)
- anoxia (Incorrect. Remember, anoxia is caused by a complete lack of oxygen to the brain during birth, not low birth weight.)
- hypoxia (Incorrect. Remember, hypoxia is caused by a partial lack of oxygen to the brain during birth, not low birth weight.)
- cerebral palsy (Correct! Babies with a very low birth weight, usually of 2 pounds or less, have been found to have an increased risk of cerebral palsy.)
A: cerebral palsy

Q: Which of the following describes a cause of premature birth?
- anoxia (Incorrect. Anoxia refers to severe brain damage caused by total oxygen deprivation during birth. It is not a cause of premature birth.)
- hypoxia (Incorrect. Hypoxia refers to moderate brain damage caused by partial oxygen deprivation during birth. It is not a cause of premature birth.)
- cerebral palsy (Incorrect. Although cerebral palsy has been found to be more common in individuals with a very low birth weight, it is not a cause of premature birth.)
- infections (Correct! The anti-inflammatory chemicals released by the body in response to infections have been found to trigger contractions.)
A: infections